Reviewer

MOCK BOARD EXAMINATION IN CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE

By: https://firefoxdreamer.wordpress.com

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Write the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided.

1. Badong, with evident premeditation and treachery killed his father. What was the crime committed?

a. Murder

b. Parricide

c. Homicide

d. Qualified Homicide

2. PO3 Bagsik entered the dwelling of Totoy against the latter’s will on suspicion that Totoy keep unlicensed firearms in his home. What was the crime committed by PO3 Bagsik?

a. Trespass to Dwelling

b. Violation of Domicile

c. Usurpation Of Authority

d. Forcible Trespassing

3. Berung and Betang had been married for more than six months. They live together with the children of Betang from her first husband. Berung had sexual relationship with Bea, the 14 year old daughter of Betang. Bea love Berung very much. What was the crime committed by Berung, if any?

a. Simple Seduction

b. Qualified Seduction

c. Consented Abduction

d. Rape

4. Prof. Dabcat gave a failing grade to one of his students, Sixto. When the two met the following day, Sixto slapped Prof. Dabcat on the face. What was the crime committed by Sixto?

a. Corruption of Public Officials

b. Direct Assault

c. Slight Physical Injuries

d. Grave Coercion

5. A warrant of arrest was issued against Pekto for the killing of his parents. When PO2 Tapang tried to arrest him, Pekto gave him 1 million Pesos to set him free. PO2 Tapang refrained in arresting Pekto. What was the crime committed by PO2 Tapang?

a. Indirect Bribery

b. Direct Bribery

c. Corruption of Public Officials

d. Qualified Bribery

6. Exemption to the hearsay rule made under the consciousness of an impending death.

a. parol evidence b. ante mortem statement

c. suicide note d. dead man statute

7. The meaning of factum probans.

a. preponderance of evidence

b. ultimate fact

c. evidentiary fact

d. sufficiency of evidence

8. It refers to family history or descent transmitted from one generation to another.

a. inheritance

b. heritage

c. pedigree

d. culture

9. The authority of the court to take cognisance of the case in the first instance.

a. Appellate Jurisdiction

b. General Jurisdiction

c. Original Jurisdiction

d. Exclusive Jurisdiction

10. A person designated by the court to assist destitute litigants.

a. Counsel de officio

b. Attorney on record

c. Attorney at law

d. Special counsel

11. Which of the following is not covered by the Rules on Summary Procedure?

a. Violation of rental laws

b. Violation of traffic laws

c. The penalty is more than six months of imprisonment

d. The penalty does not exceed 6 months imprisonment

12. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to be exercised.

a. jurisdiction b. jurisprudence

c. venue d. bench

13. The Anti-Bouncing Check Law.

a. RA 6425 b. RA 8353

c. BP 22 d. RA 6975

14. The taking of another person’s personal property, with intent to gain, by means of force and intimidation.

a. qualified theft b. robbery

c. theft d. malicious mischief

15. Felony committed when a person compels another by means of force, violence or intimidation to do something against his will, whether right or wrong.

a. grave threat b. grave coercion

c. direct assault d. slander by deed

16. Persons having no apparent means of subsistence but has the physical ability to work and neglects to apply himself or herself to lawful calling.

a. pimps b. prostitutes

c. gang members d. vagrants

17. A medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade of discordant noises designed to annoy and insult.

a. tumultuous b. charivari

c. sedition d. scandal

18. The unauthorized act of a public officer who compels another person to change his residence.

a. violation of domicile b. arbitrary detention

c. expulsion d. direct assault

19. The deprivation of a private person of the liberty of another person without legal grounds.

a. illegal detention b. arbitrary detention

c. forcible abduction d. forcible detention

20. An offense committed by a married woman through carnal knowledge with a man not her husband who knows her to be married, although the marriage be later declared void.

a. concubinage b. bigamy

c. adultery d. immorality

21. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime.

a. 15-18 years old b. 18-70 years old

c. 9 years old and below d. between 9 & 15 years old

22. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous acts.

a. accomplices b. suspects

c. principal actors d. accessories

23. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute the final sentence after the lapse of a certain time fixed by law.

a. prescription of crime

b. prescription of prosecution

c. prescription of judgement

d. prescription of penalty

24. A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty is suspended.

a. pardon b. commutation

c. amnesty d. reprieve

25. Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a more orderly regulation of the affairs of the society.

a. mala prohibita b. mala in se

c. private crimes d. public crimes

26. Felony committed by a public officer who agrees to commit an act in consideration of a gift and this act is connected with the discharge of his public duties.

a. qualified bribery b. direct bribery

c. estafa d. indirect bribery

27. The wilful and corrupt assertion of falsehood under oath of affirmation, administered by authority of law on a material matter.

a. libel b. falsification

c. perjury d. slander

28. Deliberate planning of act before execution.

a. treachery b. evident premeditation

c. ignominy d. cruelty

29. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted together in the commission of a crime.

a. gang b. conspiracy

c. band d. piracy

30. The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to.

a. negligence b. imprudence

c. omission d. act

31. Ways and means are employed for the purpose of trapping and capturing the law breaker in the execution of his criminal plan.

a. misfeasance b. entrapment

c. inducement d. instigation

32. Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of public policy and sentiment there is no penalty imposed.

a. impossible crimes

b. aggravating circumstances

c. absolutory causes

d. complex crimes

33. An alternative circumstance.

a. insanity b. intoxication

c. passion or obfuscation d. evident premeditation

34. If the accused refuse to plead, or make conditional plea of guilty, what shall be entered for him?

a. a plea of not guilty b. a plea of guilty

c. a plea of mercy d.plea of surrender

35. At what time may the accused move to quash the complaint or information?

a. at any time before his arrest

b. only after entering his plea

C. any time before entering his plea

d. Monday morning

36. The process whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a criminal case work out a mutually satisfactory disposition on the case subject to court approval.

a. arraignment b. plea bargaining

c. preliminary investigation d. trial

37. The security given for the release of a person in custody, furnished by him or a bondsman, conditioned upon his appearance before any court as required under the conditions specified by law.

a. subpoena b. recognizance

c. bail d. warrant

38. The examination before a competent tribunal, according to the laws of the land, of the acts in issue in a case, for the purpose of determining such issue.

a. trial b. arraignment

b. pre-trial d. judgment

39. The adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or is not guilty of the offense charged, and the imposition of the proper penalty and civil liability provided for by law on the accused.

a. trial b. pre-trial

c. arraignment d. judgment

40. It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining whether there is sufficient ground to engender a well founded belief that an offense has been committed and the offender is probably guilty thereof and should be held for trial.

a. pre-trial b. arraignment

c. preliminary investigation d. plea bargaining

41. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts.

a. secondary evidence b. prima facie evidence

c. corroborative evidence d. best evidence

42. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or uncontradicted is sufficient to maintain the proposition affirmed.

a. secondary evidence b. prima facie evidence

c. corroborative evidence d. best evidence

43. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived from conventional symbols, such as letters, by which ideas are represented on material substances.

a. documentary evidence b.testimonial evidence

c. material evidence d. real evidence

44. When the witness states that he did not see or know the occurrence of a fact.

a. positive evidence b.corroborative evidence

c. secondary evidence d. negative evidence

45. Personal property that can be subjects for search and seizure.

a. used or intended to be used as means in committing an offense

b. stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits of the offense

c. subject of the offense

d. all of the above

46. All persons who can perceive and perceiving, can make known their perception to others.

a. suspects b. witnesses

c. victims d. informers

47. The unlawful destruction, or the bringing forth prematurely, of human fetus before the natural time of birth which results in death.

a. abortion b. infanticide

c. murder d. parricide

48. Felony committed when a person is killed or wounded during the confusion attendant to a quarrel among several persons not organized into groups and the parties responsible cannot be ascertained.

a. alarm and scandal

b. mysterious homicide

c. death under exceptional circumstances

d. tumultuous affray

49. A question which arises in a case the resolution of which is the logical antecedent of the issue involved in said case and the cognisance of which pertains to another rtribunal.

a. legal question b. juridical question

c. prejudicial question d. judicial question

50. The offender has been previously punished for an offense to which the law attaches an equal or greater penalty or two or more crimes to which it attaches a lighter penalty.

a. reiteracion b. recidivism

b. quasi-recidivism d. habitual delinquency

51. An act or omission which is a result of a misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not intentional.

a. impossible crime b. mistake of facts

c. accidental crime d. complex crime

52. Infanticide is committed by killing a child not more than….

a. 36 hours b. 24 hours

c. 48 hours d. 72 hours

53. Ignorance of the law excuses no one from compliance therewith.

a. ignorantia legis non excusat b. parens patriae

c. res ipsa loquitur d. dura lex sed lex

54. An act which would be an offense against persons or property were if not for the inherent impossibility of its accomplishment.

a. compound crime b. impossible crime

c. complex crime d. accidental crime

55. The law which reimposed the death penalty.

a. RA 5425 b. RA 8553

c. RA 7659 d. RA 8551

56. One who is deprived completely of reason or discernment and freedom of the will at the time of the commission of the crime.

a. discernment b. insanity

c. epilepsy d. imbecility

57. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a person as its owner or author.

a. responsibility b. duty

c. guilt d. imputability

58. Something that happen outside the sway of our will, and although it comes about through some acts of our will, lies beyond the bounds of humanly foreseeable consequences.

a. fortuitous event b. fate

c. accident d. destiny

59. A sworn written statement charging a person with an offense, subscribed by the offended party , any peace officer or other public officer charged with the enforcement of the law violated.

a. subpoena b. information

c. complaint d. writ

60. This right of the accused is founded on the principle of justice and is intended not to protect the guilty but to prevent as far as human agencies can, the conviction of an innocent person.

a. right to due process of law

b. presumption of innocence

c. right to remain silent

d. right against self-incrimination

61. Known in other countries as the body of principles, practices, usages and rules of action which are not recognized in our country.

a. penal laws b. special laws

c. common laws d. statutory laws

62. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent of the crime any of all the conditions that would make an act voluntary and hence, though there is no criminal liability there is civil liability.

a. exempting b. alternative

c. justifying d. aggravating

63. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance with the law, and hence, he incurs no criminal and civil liability.

a. exempting b. alternative

c. justifying d. aggravating

64. When the offender enjoys and delights in making his victim suffer slowly and gradually, causing him unnecessary physical pain in the consummation of the criminal act.

a. ignominy b. cruelty

c. treachery d. masochism

65. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have been previously convicted by final judgment of another crime embraced in the same title of the Revised Penal Code.

a. recidivism b. habitual delinquency

c. reiteracion d. quasi-recidivism

66. Alevosia means

a. craft b. treachery

c. evident premeditation d. cruelty

67. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry and render judgment after a fair trial.

a. ex post facto law

b. equal protection of the law

c. rule of law

d. due process of law

68. A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his release or last conviction of the crime of serious or less serious physical injuries, robbery, theft, estafa or falsification, he is found guilty of any of the said crimes a third time or oftener.

a. recidivist b. quasi-recidivist

c. habitual delinquent d. hardened criminal

69. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.

a. Primary b. Best

c. Secondary d. Conclusive

70. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.

a. Primary b. Best

c. Secondary d. Conclusive

71. These questions suggest to the witness the answers to which an examining party requires.

a. leading b. misleading

c. stupid d. hearsay

72. A method fixed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of persons alleged to have committed a crime, and for their punishment in case of conviction.

a. Criminal Law b. Criminal Evidence

c. Criminal Procedure d. Criminal Jurisprudence

73. The period of prescription of crimes punishable by death.

a. 20 years b. 15 years

c. 10 years d. 40 years

74. Persons who take direct part in the execution of a crime.

a. accomplices b. accessories

c. instigators d. principals

75. A crime against honor which is committed by performing any act which casts dishonor, discredit, or contempt upon another person.

a. libel

b. slander by deed

c. incriminating innocent person

d. intriguing against honor

76. The improper performance of some act which might lawfully be done.

a. misfeasance b. malfeasance

c. nonfeasance d. dereliction

77. A sworn statement in writing, made upon oath before an authorized magistrate or officer.

a. subpoena b. writ

c. warrant d. affidavit

78. Any other name which a person publicly applies to himself without authority of law.

a. alias b. common name

c. fictitious name d. screen name

79. A special aggravating circumstance where a person, after having been convicted by final judgment, shall commit a new felony before beginning to serve such sentence, or while serving the same.

a. quasi-recidivism b. recidivism

c. reiteracion d. charivari

80. Which of the following is not a person in authority.

a. Municipal mayor b. Private School Teacher

c. Police Officer d. Municipal Councilor

81. In its general sense, it is the raising of commotions or disturbances in the State.

a. Sedition b. Rebellion

c. Treason d. Coup d’ etat

82. The length of validity of a search warrant from its date.

a. 30 days b. 15 days

c. 10 days d. 60 days

83. The detention of a person without legal grounds by a public officer or employee.

a. illegal detention b. arbitrary detention

c. compulsory detention d. unauthorized detention

84. A breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a person who owes allegiance to it.

a. treason b. espionage

c. rebellion d. coup d’ etat

85. A building or structure, exclusively used for rest and comfort.

a. sanctuary b. prison

c. jail d. dwelling

86. The mental capacity to understand the difference between right and wrong.

a. treachery b. premeditation

c. recidivism d. discernement

87. Conspiracy to commit this felony is punishable under the law.

a. Estafa b. Murder

c. Rebellion d. Rape

88. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which is intended.

a. Aberratio ictus b. Error in personae

c. Dura Lex Sed lex d. Praeter Intentionem

89. It means mistake in the blow.

a. Aberratio Ictus b. Error in Personae

c. Dura lex sed lex d. Praeter Intentionem

90. A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for its execution and accomplishment are present.

a. Attempted b. Frustrated

c. Consummated d. Accomplished

91. An act or omission which is the result of a misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not intentional.

a. Absolutory Cause b. Mistake of facts

c. Conspiracy d. Felony

92. Crimes that have three stages of execution.

a. Material b. Formal

c. Seasonal d. Continuing

93. Felonies where the acts or omissions of the offender are malicious.

a. Culpable b. Intentional

c. Deliberate d. Inculpable

94. It indicates deficiency of perception.

a. Negligence b. Diligence

c. Imprudence d. Inference

95. Acts and omissions punishable by special penal laws.

a. Offenses b. Misdemeanours

c. Felonies d. Ordinances

96. A character of Criminal Law, making it binding upon all persons who live or sojourn in the Philippines.

a. General b. Territorial

c. Prospective d. Retroactive

97. A legislative act which inflicts punishment without judicial trial.

a. Bill of Attainder b. Bill of Rights

c. Ex Post Facto Law d. Penal Law

98. The taking of a person into custody in order that he may bound to answer for the commission of an offense.

a. Search b. Seizure

c. Arrest d. Detention

99. Pedro stole the cow of Juan. What was the crime committed?

a. Robbery b. Farm Theft

c. Qualified Theft d. Simple Theft

100. Pedro, a 19 year old man had sexual intercourse with her 11 year old girlfriend without threat, force or intimidation. What was the crime committed?

a. Child rape b. Qualified Rape

c. Statutory Rape d. None

CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION

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INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Write the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided.

1. It is the authority of the President of the Philippines to suspend the execution of a penalty, reduce the sentence and extinguish criminal liability.

A. Parole C. Executive clemency

B. Pardon D. President’s clemency

2. B.J.M.P. is under the administration of the:

A. Executive Department C. P.N.P.

B. D.I.L.G. D. none of theses

3. There are three (3) casework techniques applied by the parole officer, which one is not.

A. The trick and treat techniques

B. The executive techniques

C. The guidance, counseling and leadership techniques

D. The manipulative techniques

4. The basis of this old school of penology is the human free-will.

A. Penology School C. Classical School

B. Neo-classical D. Positivist

5. This helps the prisoner/detainee in the resolution of his problems

A. Meeting C. Working

B. Recreation D. Counseling

6. Takes charge of financial matters especially in programming, budgeting, accounting, and other activities related to financial services. It consolidates and prepares financial reports and related statements of subsistence outlays and disbursements in the operational of the jail.

A. Budget and finance branch C. General services branch

B. Property and supply branch D. Mess services branch

7. Operation conducted by the BJMP wherein a prisoner maybe checked at any time. His beddings, lockers and personal belongings may also be opened at anytime, in his presence, whenever possible. This practice is known as:

A. Check and balance C. S.O.P.

B. Inventory D. Operation Greyhound

8. Pardon cannot be extended to one of the following instances.

A. Murder C. Brigandage

B. Rape D. Impeachment

9. It refers to commission of another crime during service of sentence of penalty imposed for another previous offense.

A. Recidivism C. delinquency

B. Quasi-recidivism D. City prisoner

10. A person who is detained for the violation of law or ordinance and has not been convicted is a –

A. Detention Prisoner C. Provincial Prisoner

B. Municipal Prisoner D. City Prisoner

11. Forms of executive clemency, EXCEPT

A. commutation C. reform model

B. amnesty D. probation

12. It is that branch of the administration of Criminal Justice System charged with the responsibility for the custody, supervision, and rehabilitation of the convicted offender.

A. conviction C. corrections

B. penalty D. punishment

13. Pardon cannot be exercised in which of the following instances

A. before conviction C. before trial

B. after conviction D. before conviction and before trial

14. This is a procedure which permits a jail prisoner to pursue his normal job during the week and return to the jail to serve his sentence during the weekend or non-working hours.

A. amnesty C. good conduct time allowance

B. probation D. delayed sentence

15. The following are the justifications of punishment, EXCEPT

A. Retribution C. deterrence

B. Happiness D. expiration or atonement

16. Pardon is exercised when the person is ___________________________.

A. already convicted C. not yet convicted

B. about to be convicted D. serve the sentence

17. This kind of punishment will be given to the offender by showing to others what would happen to them if they have committed the heinous crime.

A. Protection C. Deterrence

B. Lethal injection D. Stoning

18. For a convicted offender, probation is a form of ______________________.

A. Punishment C. Treatment

B. Enjoyment D. Encarceration

19. For amnesty to be granted, there should be ____________________.

A. Recommendation from U.N. C. Recommendation from C.H.R.

B. Application D. Concurrence of the congress

20. The highest official of the bureau of corrections.

A. Director C. Secretary of the DND

B. Chief of Executive D. Prison Inspector

21. It plays a unique role in the moral and spiritual regeneration of man

A. vocation C. work

B. education D. religion

22. It is a penalty wherein a convicted person shall not be permitted to enter the place designated in the sentence or within the radius therein specified, which shall not be more than 250 and not less than 25 kilometers from the place designated.

A. P 30.00/day C. P 25.00/day

B. P 22.00/day D. P 19.00/day

23. Punishing a criminal to serve as example to others is a theory of ______________.

A. Self-defense C. Social defense

B. Exemplary D. Equality

24. The purpose of the decree on probation shall be to

A. provide an opportunity for the reformation of a penitent offender

which might be less probable if he were to serve a prison sentence.

B. Prevent the commission of offenses

C. Promote the correction and rehabilitation of an offender by providing him with individualized treatment

D. All of these

25. The most common problem of the National prison is

A. Excessive number of escapes C. Overcrowding

B. Disagreement about their mess D. Lack of adequate funding

26. Nobody can assume the suffering for a crime committed by others.

A. Justice C. Personal

B. Legal D. Certain

27. These are the factors considered in diversification, EXCEPT;

A. Age of offenders C. Mother of offender

B. Sex of offenders D. Medical condition

28. This branch takes charge of the preparation of the daily menu, makes foodstuff purchases, prepares and cooks the food and serves it to the inmates. It maintains a record of daily purchases and consumption and submits a daily report to the Warden.

A. General Services Branch C. Mittimus Computing Branch

B. Budget and Finance D. Mess services Branch

29. Under Article VII, Section 10 paragraph (B) of the Philippines Constitution, pardoning power is vested with the

A. Department of Justice C. Judiciary

B. Chief Executive D. Legislative

30. It is a temporary stay of execution of sentence.

A. reprieve C. pardon

B. communication D. amnesty

31. Parole is not matter of _____________________.

A. privilege C. right

B. grace D. requirement

32. This group consists of chronic troublemakers but not as dangerous as the super

security prisoners. They are not allowed to work outside the institution.

A. maximum security prisoners C. super security prisoners

B. minimum security prisoners D. medium security prisoners

33. Parole is granted by the

A. President C. Board of Pardons and Parole

B. Director of Prison D. Court

34. A recipient of absolute pardon is ________ from civil liability imposed upon him by the sentence.

A. partially exempted C. exempted

B. conditionally exempted D. not exempted

35. It is an act of clemency which changes a heavier sentence to a less serious one or a longer term to a shorter term.

A. Amnesty C. commutation

B. Reprieve D. none of these

36. ____________ is an act of grace and the recipient is not entitled to it as a matter of right.

A. pardon C. parole

B. probation D. none of these

37. In probation system’s philosophy and concept, it is stated that the individual has the ability to _________ and to modify his anti-social behavior with the right kind of help.

A. challenge C. none of these

B. change D. aggravate his behavior

38. The Bureau of Corrections is under the _________________.

A. Department of Social Welfare and Development

B. Department of Justice

C. Department of the Interior and Local Government

D. Department of Health

39. A person who is sentenced to serve a prison term of over three (3) years is a _________________.

A. Municipal prisoner

B. Detention prisoner

C. National or Insular prisoner

D. City prisoner

40. The Head of Bureau of Corrections is known as –

A. Chief of the Bureau of Corrections

B. Director of the Bureau of Corrections

C. Superintendent of the Bureau of Corrections

D. None of these

41. What are the type of Jails under the Supervision of the BJMP?

A. Provincial and sub-Provincial Jails

B. City and Municipal Jails

C. District Jails

D. Insular Jails

42. Provincial Jails were first established in 1910 under the American Regime. At present, who supervises and controls the said jails?

A. BJMP C. Provincial Government

B. DOJ D. LGU

43. What is the primary purpose of imprisonment?

A. Rehabilitation and Reformation C. to stand trial

B. Punishment D. socialization

44. A place of confinement for persons awaiting trial or curt action and where the convicted offenders serve short sentences or penalty of imprisonment is known as:

A. Jail C. Lock-up

B. Penitentiary D. Detention Cells

45. A warrant issued by the court bearing its seal and signature of the judge directing the jail or prison authorities to receive the convicted offender for service of sentence or detention is known as –

A. Mittimus C. Detention Mittimus

B. Sentence Mittimus D. Detention Warrant

46. The maintenance of care and protection accorded to people who by authority of law are temporarily incarcerated for violation of laws and also those who were sentenced by the court to serve judgment is called –

A. custody C. safe-keeping

B. classification D. caring

E. protection

47. Which of these refers to the assigning or grouping of offenders according to their sentence, gender, age, nationality, health, criminal record, etc.?

A. classification C. custody

B. security D. safe-keeping

48. The open institution usually a penal farm or camp is known as the

A. NBP C. Medium Security Institution

B. Maximum Security Institution D. Minimum Security Institution

49. What is the act of grace from a sovereign power inherent in the state which exempts an individual from the punishment which the law imposes or prescribes for his crime, extended by the President thru the recommendation of the Board of Parole and Pardon?

A. Amnesty C. Parole

B. Pardon D. Probation

50. Under the prison service manual, the prescribed color of prison uniform for maximum security prison is –

A. Orange C. Yellow E. Stripe Orange

B. Blue D. Pink

51. When an inmate is given a “shakedown” before admission it meant

A. Process of identification, record, fingerprint and photograph

B. Examination for contraband

C. His commitment paper are delivered to record clerk

D. All of these

52. An inmate maybe granted parole if he –

A. earned good conduct time allowance credit

B. serve minimum sentence

C. earned good behavior while serving prison term

D. all of these

53. Aside from protecting the public, imprisonment has for its latest objective, the –

A. reformation of offenders C. Deterrence

B. segregation of offender D. Confinement of Offenders

54. In the New Bilibid Prison, the medium security prisoners are confined at –

A. NBP Main Prison C. Camp Bukang Liwayway

B. Camp Sampaguita D. Medium Security Prison

55. Who is charged for the hearing of disciplinary cased in prison?

A. Classification Board C. Parole Board

B. Administrative Board D. Disciplinary Board

56. The form of conditional release that is granted after a prisoner has served a portion of his sentence in a correctional

A. Conditional pardon C. Probation

B. Parole D. Commutation

57. Which of the following is the function of the Custodial Division?

A. Supervision of prisoners C. escort

B. Keep records D. all of the above

58. The putting of offenders in prison for the purpose of protecting the public and at the same time rehabilitating them by requiring the latter to undergo institutional treatment program is referred to as:

A. imprisonment C. trial

B. conviction D. detention

59. The Sablayan Penal Colony and Farm, a National Penitentiary in the Philippines under the BUCOR is located in _________________.

A. Palawan C. Zamboanga

B. Davao D. Occidental Mindoro

60. In Babylon, about 1990 BC, credited as the oldest code prescribing savage

Punishment but in fact ____ is older.

A. Hammurabic Code C. Sumerian Code

B. Justinian Code D. Code of Draco

61. The penalty imposed for offenders must be certain. This means that:

A. The guilty one must be the one to be punished, no proxy.

B. No one must escape its effect

C. It must be equal for all persons

D. The consequence must be in accordance with law.

62. The following are the duties of the custodial force in prison, except:

A. Censor offender’s inmate

B. Escort inmates

C. Inspect security devices

D. Conduct disciplinary hearing

63. When a jailbreak, escape or riot is in progress or has just been perpetuated in the jail, the officer at the control centers shall immediately:

A. Sound the alarm C. locked prisoners in their respective cells

B. Notify the nearest police precinct D. call the warden or the director

64. In case of mass jailbreak, all members of the custodial force shall be immediately

issued firearms and assigned to critical posts to:

A. plug off the escape routes C. to shoot the escape

B. protect the other inmates D. to give warning shots

65. Which of these is known as the Adult Probation Law, which grants probation to

prisoner sentenced to term in prison of not more than six (6) years –

A. PD 603 C. RA 6127 E. PD 968

B. PD 869 D. PD 698

66. The continuing relationship between probation officer and probationer is known as –

A. Affiliation Guidance C. Pre-sentenced Investigation

B. Supervision D. Probation Guidance

67. Those who have been once on probation under the Probation Law:

A. are qualified to apply for probation

B. are disqualified to apply for probation

C. may be granted for another probation

D. should be confined in prison

68. This pillar/component of our criminal justice system is responsible in the confinement, rehabilitation and reformation of convicted offenders.

A. law enforcement C. prosecution

B. court D. corrections

69. The traditional and most basic goal of corrections.

A. retribution C. deterrence

B. incapacitation D. rehabilitation

70. The attempt to prevent future crimes through fear of punishment.

A. retribution C. deterrence

B. incapacitation D. rehabilitation

71. The task of changing an offender’s attitude so that he or she may not commit another crime in the future.

A. retribution C. deterrence

B. incapacitation D. rehabilitation

72. This refers to the phased reentry of an offender into society rather than the usual abrupt reentry at the end of a prison sentence.

A. reintegration C. deterrence

B. incapacitation D. rehabilitation

73. They were known as Bridewells, which started in 1553 and served as training schools for delinquent youths, provided housing and support for older and poorer persons, and detained vagrants.

A. House of Corrections C. workhouses

B common jails D. penal colonies

74. It direct, supervise and control the administration and operation of all district, city and municipal jails to implement a better system of jail management nationwide

A. Bureau of Prisons C. Department of Justice

B. Bureau of Corrections D. Parole and Probation Administration

75. It exercise supervision and control over provincial jails.

A, BJMP B. Bureau of Corrections

B. Provincial Government D. Parole and Probation Administration

76. An agency under the Department of Justice that is charged with custody and rehabilitation of national offenders, that is, those sentenced to serve a term of imprisonment of more than three (3) years

A. BJMP C. Bureau of Corrections

B. Provincial Government D. Parole and Probation Administration

77. The New Bilibid Prison,The Correctional Institution for Women (CIW),Iwahig Prison and Penal Farm, and Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm are all under this agency.

A. BJMP C. Bureau of Corrections

B. Provincial Government D. Parole and Probation Administration

78. An attached agency of the Department of Justice which provides a less costly alternative to imprisonment of offenders who are likely to respond to individualized community based treatment programs.

A. BJMP C. Bureau of Corrections

B. Provincial Government D. Parole and Probation Administration

79. Prisoners whose sentences are more than three years to death penalty.

A. municipal prisoners C. provincial prisoners

B. city prisoners D. insular prisoners

80. Prisoners whose sentences are from one day to six months.

A. municipal prisoners C. provincial prisoners

B. city prisoners D. insular prisoners

81. A prison model which sought penitence ( hence the term penitentiaries) through total individual isolation and silence.

A. Pennsylvania Prison Model C. Auburn Prison Model

B. Work Release D. Halfway Houses

82. Incarcerated persons are allowed to work outside the institution that houses them.

A. Pennsylvania Prison Model C. Auburn Prison Model

B. Work Release D. Halfway Houses

83. An alternative granted after a convicted person served a part of his sentence and

is allowed to complete a sentence at large, subject to restrictions and supervision.

A. probation C. work release

B. parole D. halfway houses

84. An alternative to incarceration and allows convicted persons to remain at

large under varying degrees of restriction and supervision and certain conditions.

A. probation C. work release

B. parole D. halfway houses

85. A correctional institution that has the authority to detain persons awaiting trial

or adjudication or confine convicted offenders for a short period of time.

A. halfway house C. penal colony

B. jail D. farm

86. A correctional institution that has the authority to detain convicted offenders for

a longer or extended period of time, including those who are waiting their death

sentence.

A. halfway house C. halfway house

B. jail D. prison

87. The law creating the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP).

A. RA 8551 C. RA 9165

B. RA 6975 D. BP 22

88. Who among the following is the provincial prisoner?

A. A prisoner serving a term below six (6) years

B. A prisoner serving a term of six (6) years and up

C. A prisoner serving a term of six (6) months and one (1) day to three (3) years

D. A prisoner serving a term of three (3) years and one (1) day up

89. This theory in criminology states that are totally responsible for their behaviors and

the stress in more on the effect of their felonious act than upon the criminal

himself.

A. Positivist Theory C. Biological Theory

B. Biological Theory D. Classical Theory

90. Which of the following is exercised by executive elementary with the concurrence of

congress?

A. Probation C. Pardon

B. Amnesty D. Parole

91. The Parole and Probation Administration administers a ________corrections program.

A. Institutional C. Integrated

B. Community – based D. Traditional

92. A minimum and maximum amount of time to be served in prison is referred to us _______

A. A corporal punishment C. A determinate sentence

B. An indeterminate sentence D. A capital punishment

93. Juana was required to provide financial remuneration for the losses incurred by the victim.

What is the type of sentence?

A. Payment C. Retribution

B. Restitution D. Fines

94. An ________ program employs prisoners in various product or good producing tasks

A. Agricultural C. Operational

B. Industrial D. Administrative

95. What crimes apparently have no complaining victims such as gambling, prostitution and

drunkenness?

A. Complex Crime C. Organized crimes

B. Blue Collar crimes D. Victimless crimes

96. Which agency performs the evaluation of prisoner’s fitness and qualifications for the grant

of pardon or parole?

A. Punishment, confinement retribution, treatment

B. Retribution, Deterrence, incapacitation, rehabilitation

C. Deterrence, retribution, punishment treatment

D. Deterrence, punishment, incapacitation, treatment

97. Which of the following should be a probationer NOT DO?

A. Make periodic report

B. Go and play in the gambling den

C. Work regularly to support family

D. Stay away from bad associates.

98. The Supreme Court automatically reviews the cases of criminals convicted and meted out

the penalty of

A. 12 years 6 months and one day C. Death

B. Life imprisonment D. 6 years one month and one day

99. The ________ theory in crime causation focuses on the criminal disorders, chromosomes

irregularity and abnormal brain activity.

A. Age Reform C. Age of Discernment

B. Age of Rehabilitation D. Age of Reason

100. What correctional institution houses accused persons awaiting trial?

A. Rehabilitation center C. Jail

B. Halfway house D. Prison